FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Credit Risk Management
In a cash securitization, a senior tranche is rated AAA because the pool is subordinated by a mezzanine and an equity tranche. A risk manager reviews the pool and finds that the underlying loans are highly concentrated in one region with strongly correlated defaults. Compared with a pool of the same expected loss but low default correlation, what is the most likely effect on the senior tranche?
Senior tranche risk rises. With the same expected loss, higher default correlation makes very large pool losses more likely, and these are the outcomes that exhaust subordination and hit the senior tranche. Equity tranches tend to benefit, but senior tranches become more exposed.
- AIts risk of loss increases, because higher correlation raises the probability of extreme pool losses reaching the senior trancheCorrect
- BIts risk of loss decreases, because higher correlation reduces the chance of pool losses reaching the senior tranche
- CIts risk is unchanged, because expected pool loss is unchanged
- DIts risk is unchanged, because subordination fully protects it
Explanation
Higher correlation fattens the tail of the pool loss distribution. Equity tranche risk tends to fall slightly while senior tranche risk rises, as extreme losses become more likely even with equal expected loss. Subordination is finite and does not protect against extreme outcomes.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Credit Risk Management shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Credit Risk Management questions
- A bank lends USD 10 million to a corporate borrower. The one-year probability of default is 2%, the loss given default is 45%, and the expos…
- A risk analyst compares a bank's internal rating system with an agency's external ratings. The bank wants ratings that reflect the borrower'…
- A bank has a USD 20 million term loan with a one-year PD of 3% and LGD of 40%. It buys protection through a credit default swap on USD 20 mi…
- A bank buys protection via a CDS from a dealer that is highly correlated with the reference entity, for example a bank whose fortunes depend…
- A risk manager computes the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index for a loan portfolio using exposure shares of 40%, 30%, 20% and 10% across four borro…
- A bank wants to reduce regulatory capital on a loan portfolio through a traditional true-sale securitization. Which feature is most necessar…