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FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · Regression with Multiple Explanatory Variables

In a multiple regression, an analyst finds that the F-test rejects the null that all slope coefficients are zero at the 1% level, yet none of the individual t-statistics on the slope coefficients is significant at the 5% level. Which problem is the most likely explanation?

The most likely cause is multicollinearity. Highly correlated regressors inflate individual standard errors, making each t-statistic insignificant, while together they still explain the dependent variable well, so the joint F-test remains significant. This signature pattern distinguishes it from heteroskedasticity or serial correlation.

  1. AMulticollinearity among the explanatory variablesCorrect
  2. BHeteroskedasticity in the error terms
  3. COmitted variable bias that is uncorrelated with the regressors
  4. DSerial correlation in a model with no lagged dependent variable

Explanation

Multicollinearity inflates the standard errors of individual coefficients, lowering their t-statistics, while the joint explanatory power of the regressors remains high, so the F-test and R-squared stay significant. Heteroskedasticity and serial correlation mainly distort standard errors in other ways and do not produce this specific pattern.

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