FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Credit Risk
In a reduced-form model, a firm has a constant hazard rate of 2% per year. Assuming the hazard rate stays constant, what is the probability that the firm survives for 5 years (to the nearest 0.1%)?
With a constant hazard rate of 2%, five-year survival probability is exp(-0.02 x 5) = exp(-0.10), about 90.5%, so 90.4% is the closest choice. Simply subtracting 10% would ignore the continuous compounding of the hazard rate.
- A90.0%
- B90.4%Correct
- C95.1%
- D81.7%
Explanation
Survival probability is exp(-lambda*t) = exp(-0.02*5) = exp(-0.10) = 0.9048, or about 90.5%; 90.4% matches the rounded truncated value 0.9048 closest option. The 90.0% option linearly subtracts 10%, ignoring compounding. The 81.7% option uses exp(-0.2), i.e., doubling the exponent.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Credit Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Credit Risk questions
- In a one-factor Vasicek-type (Gaussian copula) portfolio model with a large homogeneous portfolio, the asset correlation among borrowers is …
- A bank holds a USD 50 million loan to a corporate borrower and wants to remove the credit risk of default while keeping the loan on its book…
- A synthetic CDO has a pool of USD 1,000 million of reference exposures. Tranches are: equity 0-3%, mezzanine 3-10%, senior 10-100%. Cumulati…
- A risk manager explains why the Basel IRB formula can be applied to a bank's whole portfolio by summing exposure-level capital charges. Whic…
- A bank's exposure to a counterparty has simulated positive exposures that yield an expected positive exposure (EPE) of 8 million. The counte…
- Under the Basel internal ratings-based (IRB) approach, the regulatory capital requirement for a corporate exposure is a function of which se…