IAI Actuarial Core Principles · Economic Modelling · Mean-variance portfolio theory
In mean-variance portfolio theory, a risk-free asset is added to a set of risky assets. Which statement about the risk-free asset is correct?
The risk-free asset has zero variance and zero covariance with every risky asset, because its return is certain and never deviates from its mean. This is why mixing it with a risky portfolio changes risk in direct proportion to the weight held in the risky portfolio.
- AIts variance is positive but small, and it is positively correlated with all risky assets
- BIts return has zero variance and zero covariance with every risky assetCorrect
- CIts return has zero variance but a covariance of one with the market portfolio
- DIts standard deviation equals that of the market portfolio
- Its expected return must always exceed that of the market portfolio
Explanation
A risk-free asset has a certain return, so its variance is zero. Covariance with any asset is then zero because it never deviates from its mean. A covariance of one is impossible when one variable is constant, and its expected return is normally below that of the market portfolio.
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