FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · Learning From Financial Disasters
Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM) held positions with an equity base of about USD 4.7 billion and total assets of about USD 125 billion before its 1998 collapse. What was its approximate balance sheet leverage ratio, and which lesson does it best illustrate?
Leverage was about 27 times, from USD 125 billion of assets divided by USD 4.7 billion of equity. LTCM shows that high leverage on convergence trades leaves little buffer, so adverse spread moves and vanishing liquidity can quickly destroy the fund's capital.
- AAbout 4.7 times; leverage was modest so losses were due to fraud
- BAbout 27 times; high leverage magnified losses and left no buffer when convergence trades moved against it and liquidity dried upCorrect
- CAbout 27 times; the fund was fully hedged so losses came only from operational error
- DAbout 0.04 times; positions were mostly unlevered cash securities
Explanation
Leverage = 125 / 4.7 = 26.6, about 27 times. With so little equity, small adverse spread moves wiped out capital, and illiquid positions could not be unwound without further price impact. Option 0 inverts the ratio, and there was no fraud or full hedge.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Learning From Financial Disasters shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Learning From Financial Disasters questions
- A trader marks an illiquid structured credit position using a model whose inputs are mostly unobservable and set by the trading desk itself.…
- A bank values an illiquid structured credit position using a model with an input assumption of 2% default correlation drawn from a benchmark…
- A bank funds a $500 million portfolio of long-term securitized assets with overnight repo at a 4% haircut, so the rest is financed by its ow…
- A bank's board reviews several past disasters and wants to draw the lesson most common across them about governance. Which finding is best s…
- In the 2012 JPMorgan 'London Whale' case, the Chief Investment Office changed the VaR model used for its synthetic credit portfolio. What wa…
- Which statement about the 2012 JPMorgan 'London Whale' episode is most accurate with respect to operational and model risk failures?