FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Covered Interest Parity Lost: Understanding the Cross-Currency Basis
The 3-month USD interest rate is 2.00% per year and the 3-month EUR rate is 0.00% per year. A bank borrows EUR and swaps them into USD, and the implied USD rate from the swap is 2.60% per year (simple annualized). What is the cross-currency basis, and what does it mean?
The basis is -60 bp. The synthetic USD rate of 2.60% exceeds the direct 2.00% USD rate by 0.60%, so obtaining USD through the swap costs 60 bp more than direct borrowing, a deviation from covered interest parity.
- A-60 bp; the bank pays 60 bp more than direct USD borrowing to obtain USD via the swapCorrect
- B+60 bp; the bank earns 60 bp more than direct USD borrowing
- C-260 bp; the bank pays 260 bp more than the EUR rate
- D-200 bp; the bank pays the full interest differential
Explanation
The implied USD rate from the swap is 2.60% versus the direct USD rate of 2.00%, a gap of 0.60%. Obtaining USD synthetically is 60 bp more expensive, so the basis is -60 bp by convention. Taking 2.60% minus 0.00% gives 260 bp, which is the total swap cost rather than the deviation from CIP.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Covered Interest Parity Lost: Understanding the Cross-Currency Basis shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Covered Interest Parity Lost: Understanding the Cross-Currency Basis questions
- Before the global financial crisis, covered interest parity held closely for major currency pairs. Which feature of the arbitrage explains w…
- A treasury analyst at a European bank observes that the cross-currency basis widened sharply negative at quarter-end while the interest rate…
- A Japanese institution has USD 100 million of assets to fund for one year. The direct USD rate is 5.00%, the yen rate is 1.00%, and the spot…
- Research on the post-crisis basis finds that deviations tend to widen at quarter-ends, especially for banks subject to leverage ratio report…
- A dealer notes that CIP deviations have persisted since 2008 even though the arbitrage appears riskless. Which explanation is most consisten…
- A European bank with surplus euros needs to fund a US dollar loan book. It borrows euros and swaps them into dollars through a one-year FX s…