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IAI Actuarial Core Principles · Business Economics · Recent macroeconomic history

Under the Bretton Woods adjustable peg, a member country runs a persistent balance of payments deficit and its reserves are falling. Which response is consistent with the system's rules?

A deficit country could devalue its currency with IMF agreement because the persistent deficit signalled fundamental disequilibrium. Devaluation cheapens exports and raises import prices, helping restore balance, whereas floating or revaluing were not consistent with the adjustable peg.

  1. ADevalue its currency after IMF agreement, citing fundamental disequilibriumCorrect
  2. BAllow the currency to float until the deficit disappears
  3. CLeave the dollar peg and switch to a gold-only standard
  4. DImpose a permanent ban on all imports
  5. Revalue its currency upward to attract capital

Explanation

The rules allowed a change of parity in fundamental disequilibrium, with IMF consent for larger changes. Devaluation makes exports cheaper and imports dearer, helping correct a deficit. Revaluation would worsen it, and floating was outside the system's design.

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