FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · Banks
Under the originate-to-distribute (OTD) model, a bank makes loans and then sells them to investors, typically through securitization. Which of the following is the main reason this model is widely cited as having weakened lending standards before the 2007-2009 crisis?
The originate-to-distribute model weakened lending standards because the originating bank passed most credit risk to investors. With little exposure left, it had less incentive to screen and monitor borrowers carefully, so loan quality deteriorated.
- AThe originating bank bore the full credit losses on loans it sold, so it lent too cautiously
- BThe originator transferred much of the credit risk to others, which reduced its incentive to screen and monitor borrowersCorrect
- CSecuritization raised the originator's capital requirement on every loan sold
- DLoans sold to investors could no longer be priced using market interest rates
Explanation
When loans are sold on, the originator keeps little of the default risk, so its incentive to perform careful credit analysis and monitoring falls. Option A reverses the logic, because under OTD the originator does not bear the full losses.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Banks shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Banks questions
- Under the originate-to-distribute model, a bank makes loans and then securitizes them, selling the resulting securities to investors. Which …
- A bank's one-year repricing gap (rate-sensitive assets minus rate-sensitive liabilities) is negative USD 120 million. Which outcome is most …
- A bank has $200 million of liabilities repricing within one year and $150 million of assets repricing within one year. Ignoring other items,…
- A bank's balance sheet shows USD 50 million of residential mortgages at a 35% risk weight, USD 80 million of unrated corporate loans at a 10…
- A bank has risk-weighted assets of USD 400 million. Its Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital is USD 36 million, Additional Tier 1 capital is …
- Which statement best describes the purpose of the Basel III countercyclical capital buffer?