IAI Actuarial Core Principles · Economic Modelling · Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
Which assumption is required for investors to select portfolios purely on the basis of mean and variance of return?
Mean-variance selection is justified when asset returns are normally distributed or when investors have quadratic utility, since then the mean and variance fully describe the relevant features of the return distribution. Risk neutrality would make variance irrelevant.
- AReturns are normally distributed, or investors have quadratic utilityCorrect
- BInvestors are risk-neutral
- CAll assets are uncorrelated
- DInvestors have an infinite time horizon with no taxes on any asset
- The risk-free rate equals the market return
Explanation
Mean-variance choice is fully consistent with expected utility if returns are multivariate normal or utility is quadratic. Risk-neutral investors would ignore variance. Zero correlation is not needed, as diversification works for any correlation below one.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) questions
- Which statement correctly distinguishes the Capital Market Line from the Security Market Line?
- Which of the following is an assumption of the single-period CAPM as usually stated?
- Which assumption is part of the basic mean-variance framework used to construct the efficient frontier?
- The risk-free rate is 6% per annum and the expected return on the market portfolio is 12%. A stock of Bharat Textiles Ltd has a beta of 1.4.…
- The risk-free rate is 6% per annum and the expected return on the market portfolio is 12% per annum. An Indian manufacturing stock has a bet…
- The risk-free rate is 6% and the market portfolio has expected return 12% and standard deviation 15%. According to the capital market line, …