Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Alpha (and the Low-Risk Anomaly)

Which explanation for the low-risk anomaly is based on investors being unable or unwilling to borrow to lever up low-beta assets, so they instead overweight high-beta assets to reach their target return?

Leverage constraints explain it. Investors who cannot borrow to scale up low-beta assets tilt toward high-beta stocks to reach target returns, bidding up their prices and lowering their future returns, while low-beta stocks become relatively underpriced and earn positive alpha.

  1. ALeverage constraintsCorrect
  2. BMean reversion in earnings
  3. CTransaction cost asymmetry in bond markets
  4. DThe size premium

Explanation

If investors cannot use leverage, those wanting higher returns bid up high-beta stocks, lowering their subsequent returns, while low-beta stocks become relatively cheap. This is the leverage-constraint explanation (as in Frazzini-Pedersen betting against beta).

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Alpha (and the Low-Risk Anomaly) shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Alpha (and the Low-Risk Anomaly) questions