CA Foundation · Quantitative Aptitude · Theoretical Distributions
Which one of the following statements about the binomial distribution with parameters n and p (0 < p < 1) and the Poisson distribution with parameter m is correct?
The binomial has variance npq, which is less than its mean np because q is below 1, while the Poisson has variance equal to its mean m. So only the Poisson has mean equal to variance.
- ABoth distributions always have mean equal to variance
- BThe binomial has variance less than its mean, while the Poisson has variance equal to its meanCorrect
- CThe binomial has variance greater than its mean, while the Poisson has variance equal to its mean
- DBoth distributions have variance less than the mean
Explanation
For the binomial, mean = np and variance = npq, and since q < 1 the variance is less than the mean. For the Poisson, mean = variance = m. Option 1 is wrong because only the Poisson has equal mean and variance.
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