Business Finance · Capital structure and dividend policy
Cost of Capital and WACC: How to Calculate It
Updated 11 October 2026 · Fact-checked
Cost of capital is the return a firm must earn to satisfy its investors. WACC combines the cost of equity and the after-tax cost of debt, weighted by market values of each. To solve a question, find each cost, find the market-value weights, then multiply and add.
Understand Cost of Capital and WACC
A company raises money from shareholders and lenders. Each group wants a return for the risk it takes. That required return is the cost of capital for that source. For the company, it is the minimum return a project must earn to keep investors satisfied.
Equity is riskier than debt. Shareholders are paid after lenders and have no fixed payout. So the cost of equity is higher than the cost of debt. You estimate it with the dividend growth model or with the CAPM. The first uses the share price and expected dividends. The second uses the risk-free rate, the equity beta and the market risk premium.
Debt pays interest, and interest is usually tax-deductible. So the cost of debt to the company is the investor's yield after tax. For irredeemable debt, this is simple. For redeemable debt, you find the yield (the IRR) of the price, the coupons and the redemption value, then multiply by (1 − tax rate).
The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) blends the costs of all sources. The weights are market values, not book values. WACC is a fair discount rate for a new project only if the project has the same business risk as the firm and does not change the capital structure much. Otherwise you need a project-specific rate.
The exam asks you to compute each cost, weight them, and then say when WACC is a suitable discount rate. State your assumptions each time.
Key rules to remember
- Dividend growth model (cost of equity)
- Ke = D1 ÷ P0 + g, where D1 = D0 × (1 + g)
- P0 is the ex-dividend price. Assumes dividends grow at a constant rate g forever.
- CAPM (cost of equity)
- Ke = Rf + β × (Rm − Rf)
- (Rm − Rf) is the market risk premium. Use the equity beta, which reflects gearing.
- Cost of irredeemable debt (after tax)
- Kd = i × (1 − T) ÷ P0, where i is the annual interest per ₹100 nominal
- P0 is the ex-interest market price per ₹100 nominal. T is the corporate tax rate.
- Cost of redeemable debt
- Find r so that P0 = Σ i(1 − T) ÷ (1 + r)^t + Redemption ÷ (1 + r)^n; then Kd = r
- Use after-tax interest in the cash flows. Solve by trial and interpolation between two rates.
- WACC
- WACC = [E × Ke + D × Kd(1 − T)] ÷ (E + D)
- If Kd is the pre-tax yield, apply (1 − T). If you already have the after-tax cost, do not apply it again. E and D are market values.
- Growth from retained earnings
- g = b × r
- b is the retention ratio and r is the return on retained funds. A simple estimate that assumes both stay constant.
How to solve Cost of Capital and WACC questions
Use the same sequence for any WACC question. It keeps your working clear and earns method marks even if one number is wrong.
- 1List the data given: share price, dividends, growth, beta, risk-free rate, market return, debt price, coupon, redemption, tax rate and number of securities.
- 2Check whether prices are cum or ex dividend or interest. Adjust if needed before using them.
- 3Calculate the cost of equity with the model the question names. If none is named, choose one and state why.
- 4Calculate the cost of debt. Use the yield on market price and then apply (1 − T) once.
- 5Calculate market values: number of shares × share price for equity, and number of bonds × market price for debt.
- 6Work out the weights as each market value divided by the total.
- 7Compute WACC as the sum of weight × cost for each source. Show it to two decimal places in percent.
- 8State the assumptions and say whether WACC is suitable as the project discount rate.
Quickest way: Table method for WACC
When to use it: Use it in MCQs and in the numeric part of written questions when time is short.
- Draw three columns: source, market value, after-tax cost.
- Fill in market values first, and compute the total.
- Compute Ke and after-tax Kd, and write them down as decimals.
- Multiply each value by its cost, add the products, and divide by the total market value.
- Sense-check: WACC must lie between Kd after tax and Ke. If not, you made an error.
Common mistakes in Cost of Capital and WACC
Using book values as weights
Balance sheet figures are easy to see and the question may list them first.
Fix: Use market values unless the question says otherwise. Compute shares × price and debt × market price.
Forgetting the tax adjustment on debt, or applying it twice
Students lose track of whether the yield they found already includes tax.
Fix: Write 'pre-tax' or 'post-tax' beside each debt figure. Apply (1 − T) exactly once, and only to the interest cash flows or the final yield.
Using D0 instead of D1 in the dividend growth model
The most recent dividend is the one quoted.
Fix: Compute D1 = D0 × (1 + g) first. Use D1 in the formula unless the question gives next year's dividend directly.
Applying tax relief to the cost of equity
Students link 'cost of capital' with 'tax shield' for all sources.
Fix: Dividends are paid from after-tax profit. Only interest gives the tax shield.
Using the market return instead of the risk premium in CAPM
Rm and (Rm − Rf) look alike in the data.
Fix: Subtract Rf from Rm before multiplying by β, then add Rf back. Check: if β = 1, Ke equals Rm.
Using WACC for every project
It is taught as the standard discount rate.
Fix: Say that WACC applies only if business risk matches the firm's and gearing stays broadly constant. Otherwise use a risk-adjusted rate.
Worked examples
Example 1
A company's shares trade at ₹250 ex dividend. The dividend just paid was ₹15 and dividends are expected to grow at 6% a year. The company also has irredeemable debentures with a market price of ₹80 per ₹100 nominal, paying 8% interest. Tax is 25%. Find the cost of equity and the after-tax cost of debt.
Show the solution
- D1 = 15 × 1.06 = ₹15.90.
- Ke = 15.90 ÷ 250 + 0.06 = 0.0636 + 0.06 = 0.1236, so 12.36%.
- Annual interest per ₹100 nominal = ₹8.
- After-tax interest = 8 × (1 − 0.25) = ₹6.
- Kd = 6 ÷ 80 = 0.075, so 7.5%.
Answer: Cost of equity = 12.36%. After-tax cost of debt = 7.5%.
Example 2
A company has 10,00,000 shares at a market price of ₹60 each and debt with a total market value of ₹2,40,00,000. The cost of equity is 14% and the after-tax cost of debt is 6%. Calculate WACC and say whether it is a suitable discount rate for a project in a new line of business.
Show the solution
- Market value of equity = 10,00,000 × 60 = ₹6,00,00,000.
- Total value = 6,00,00,000 + 2,40,00,000 = ₹8,40,00,000.
- Equity weight = 6,00,00,000 ÷ 8,40,00,000 = 5/7 = 0.7143. Debt weight = 2/7 = 0.2857.
- WACC = 0.7143 × 14% + 0.2857 × 6% = 10.00% + 1.71% = 11.71%.
- A new line of business probably has different business risk, so WACC may not fit it.
Answer: WACC ≈ 11.71%. It is suitable only if the project has the same business risk as the firm and does not change gearing much. A new business line needs a risk-adjusted rate, for example one based on a comparable firm's beta.
Exam tips
- Show every cost and weight separately. Method marks are given even if the final WACC is off.
- Read whether debt cost is given pre-tax or post-tax and label it on your working.
- Name your assumptions: constant growth, constant gearing, same business risk, and that the tax shield is fully used.
- In written questions, add one sentence on the limits of WACC. Examiners often award a mark for it.
- In MCQs, check that your WACC lies between the cost of debt after tax and the cost of equity before you pick an option.
Practice questions from Capital structure and dividend policy
- Under Modigliani and Miller's proposition with corporate taxes, how does the value of a geared firm compare with an otherwise identical unge…
- A company raises extra debt while keeping its business risk unchanged. Under the Modigliani-Miller propositions with corporate tax, what is …
- According to the Modigliani and Miller dividend irrelevance proposition, under perfect capital markets with no taxes or transaction costs an…
- Under Modigliani-Miller with corporate tax but no other imperfections, the value of a geared firm exceeds that of an otherwise identical ung…
- Which feature of real markets is most directly cited as limiting the conclusion of MM with tax that firms should use almost 100% debt?
Cost of Capital and WACC in other exams
The same ground in other exams, if you are preparing for more than one or want another angle on it.
Cost of Capital and WACC: frequently asked questions
How do I calculate WACC with an example?
Find the cost of equity and the after-tax cost of debt. Weight each by its market value over total market value, then add the products. For example, with weights 70% and 30%, Ke 12% and after-tax Kd 6%, WACC = 0.7 × 12% + 0.3 × 6% = 10.2%.
What is the difference between cost of debt and cost of equity?
Debt has a contractual return and ranks ahead of equity, so lenders accept a lower return. Debt interest is also tax-deductible, which lowers its cost further. Equity has no fixed payout and carries more risk, so shareholders demand a higher return.
Should I use the dividend growth model or CAPM?
Use the one the question names or the one the data supports. The dividend model needs a price, a dividend and a growth rate. CAPM needs a risk-free rate, a beta and a market premium. If both are possible, compute both and comment on any difference.
Can WACC be used as the discount rate for a project?
Yes, if the project has the same business risk as the company and does not shift the capital structure much. Otherwise use a rate that reflects the project's own risk. State this condition in your answer.