Business Finance · Key principles of finance
CAPM, Beta and Cost of Capital Explained
Updated 11 October 2026 · Fact-checked
CAPM says the required return on a share equals the risk-free rate plus beta times the market risk premium. Cost of debt is the after-tax interest rate. WACC weights the cost of equity and debt by their market values. To solve: find each cost, find the weights, then combine.
Understand Capital Asset Pricing Model and Cost of Capital
Investors want a return for waiting and a return for taking risk. The risk-free rate pays for waiting. Anything extra pays for risk. The cost of capital is the return a company must earn on a project so that its investors are satisfied.
The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) says investors are paid only for systematic risk. This is market-wide risk that cannot be removed by holding many shares. Risk specific to one company can be diversified away, so the market does not pay for it. CAPM assumes investors hold well-diversified portfolios, markets are efficient, and everyone can borrow and lend at the risk-free rate.
Beta measures how strongly a share moves with the market. A beta of 1 means it moves in line with the market. A beta above 1 means it is more volatile than the market, so it needs a higher return. A beta below 1 means it is less volatile. Beta is the covariance of the share's return with the market return, divided by the variance of the market return.
The cost of equity is the return shareholders require. CAPM is one way to estimate it. The cost of debt is the return lenders require. Interest is usually tax-deductible, so the cost to the company is the interest rate times (1 − tax rate). Equity is riskier than debt for the investor, so the cost of equity is normally higher than the cost of debt.
The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) combines the two costs using weights based on the market value of each source of finance. A company can use WACC to discount projects that have the same business risk and the same financing mix as the company. For projects with different risk, use a rate that matches that project's risk.
Key rules to remember
- CAPM
- E(Ri) = Rf + βi × (E(Rm) − Rf)
- Rf is the risk-free rate. E(Rm) − Rf is the market risk premium. Result is the required return on asset i.
- Beta
- βi = Cov(Ri, Rm) ÷ Var(Rm) = ρim × σi ÷ σm
- ρim is the correlation between the asset and the market. σ is standard deviation.
- Cost of equity from dividend growth model
- Ke = D1 ÷ P0 + g
- Assumes dividends grow at a constant rate g forever. D1 is next year's dividend. P0 is the current ex-dividend price.
- After-tax cost of debt (irredeemable)
- Kd = i × (1 − T)
- i is the interest rate on the debt at its market value. T is the corporate tax rate. Assumes interest is fully tax-deductible.
- Cost of redeemable debt
- Kd (pre-tax) is the IRR of: market price now, interest flows, redemption value
- Find the rate that makes the present value of the flows equal the market price. Then multiply by (1 − T) for the after-tax cost.
- WACC
- WACC = [E × Ke + D × Kd(1 − T)] ÷ (E + D)
- Use market values of equity E and debt D. Add terms for preference shares if present.
- Portfolio beta
- βp = Σ wi × βi
- wi are the proportions of the portfolio's value in each asset. Weights sum to 1.
How to solve Capital Asset Pricing Model and Cost of Capital questions
Use this order for any question on CAPM or cost of capital. It keeps the working clear and earns method marks even if one number is wrong.
- 1Read what is asked: a required return, a beta, a cost of one source, or the WACC. Note whether the question gives a tax rate.
- 2List the data with labels: Rf, market return or premium, beta, share price, dividend, growth, debt price, coupon, redemption terms.
- 3Check whether the market return or the market risk premium is given. The premium is E(Rm) − Rf. Do not subtract Rf twice.
- 4Calculate the cost of equity using CAPM or the dividend growth model, as the data allow. State the formula first.
- 5Calculate the pre-tax cost of debt, using the IRR if it is redeemable. Then apply (1 − T) to get the after-tax cost.
- 6Work out the market values of equity and debt. Use number of shares times price for equity, and market price for debt, not nominal value.
- 7Find the weights as each value divided by the total, then compute WACC. Keep at least two decimal places in percentages until the final answer.
- 8State the answer with a unit and one line of interpretation. Mention the assumptions, such as constant growth or same risk as the company.
Quickest way: Three-line WACC check
When to use it: Use this in multiple-choice questions or when time is short in the written section.
- Write Ke from CAPM: Rf + β × premium. Compute it at once.
- Write Kd after tax: i × (1 − T). Compute it at once.
- Convert market values into weights (for example 60:40). Then WACC = 0.6 × Ke + 0.4 × Kd. Check that WACC lies between Kd and Ke; if not, you have an error.
Common mistakes in Capital Asset Pricing Model and Cost of Capital
Using the market return in place of the market risk premium in CAPM.
The question gives Rm, and students multiply beta by it directly.
Fix: Always compute Rm − Rf first. Then multiply by beta and add Rf.
Forgetting the tax adjustment on debt, or applying it to equity.
Students memorise WACC without understanding that interest is tax-deductible but dividends are not.
Fix: Apply (1 − T) only to the interest cost of debt. Dividends and equity returns are not adjusted.
Using book values or nominal values as weights.
Balance sheet figures are easier to find than market prices.
Fix: Use market values unless the question says otherwise. Debt at ₹100 nominal trading at ₹92 has a market value of ₹92 per ₹100.
Using the coupon rate as the cost of redeemable debt.
The coupon is stated clearly, while the IRR needs more work.
Fix: The cost of debt is the yield that equates the market price with the future payments. Use the coupon only when the debt trades at its redemption value.
Saying a high-beta share is always 'bad' or that beta measures total risk.
Beta is confused with standard deviation.
Fix: Beta measures only systematic risk relative to the market. A high beta means a higher required return, not necessarily a poor investment.
Using WACC for every project regardless of its risk.
WACC is taught as the standard discount rate.
Fix: State that WACC is suitable only when the project has the same business and financial risk as the company. Otherwise adjust the rate.
Worked examples
Example 1
The risk-free rate is 6%. The expected market return is 12%. A share has a beta of 1.3. Find its required return under CAPM. Then find the required return if the beta were 0.8.
Show the solution
- Market risk premium = 12% − 6% = 6%.
- Required return for beta 1.3 = 6% + 1.3 × 6% = 6% + 7.8% = 13.8%.
- Required return for beta 0.8 = 6% + 0.8 × 6% = 6% + 4.8% = 10.8%.
Answer: The required return is 13.8% for beta 1.3 and 10.8% for beta 0.8. The higher beta share needs a higher return because it carries more systematic risk.
Example 2
A company has 10 lakh ordinary shares priced at ₹50 each, and debt with a market value of ₹2,00,00,000 paying 9% interest in perpetuity at market value. The risk-free rate is 7%, the market risk premium is 5%, the equity beta is 1.2 and the tax rate is 25%. Calculate the WACC.
Show the solution
- Market value of equity = 10,00,000 × ₹50 = ₹5,00,00,000.
- Market value of debt = ₹2,00,00,000. Total value = ₹7,00,00,000.
- Weights: equity = 5 ÷ 7 = 0.7143; debt = 2 ÷ 7 = 0.2857.
- Ke = 7% + 1.2 × 5% = 13%.
- Kd after tax = 9% × (1 − 0.25) = 6.75%.
- WACC = 0.7143 × 13% + 0.2857 × 6.75% = 9.2857% + 1.9286% = 11.21% (to two decimals).
Answer: WACC is about 11.21%. This is the appropriate discount rate only for projects with the same risk and financing mix as the company.
Exam tips
- In MCQs, check the units. Premium versus market return is the most common trap, so read the wording twice.
- In written answers, write the formula before substituting numbers. Examiners give method marks for it.
- Be ready to list the assumptions of CAPM and the limits of WACC. Short discussion parts often follow the calculation.
- Explain why the cost of equity exceeds the cost of debt: equity holders are paid after lenders and have no fixed return.
- Use market values for weights and say so. This shows you know the principle even if the arithmetic slips.
Practice questions from Key principles of finance
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Capital Asset Pricing Model and Cost of Capital in other exams
The same ground in other exams, if you are preparing for more than one or want another angle on it.
Capital Asset Pricing Model and Cost of Capital: frequently asked questions
What is the difference between cost of equity and cost of debt?
Cost of equity is the return shareholders require, which depends on risk and is not contractually fixed. Cost of debt is the return lenders require, based on interest and redemption terms. Debt is usually cheaper because lenders are paid first and interest gets tax relief.
What does beta tell you in CAPM?
Beta shows how sensitive a share's return is to market movements. A beta above 1 means larger swings than the market and a higher required return. It captures only systematic risk, not the risk specific to the company.
Which market values should I use for WACC weights?
Use the current market value of equity, which is shares times price, and the market value of debt. Book values can be far from what investors would pay today. Use book values only if the question tells you to.
Can WACC be used to appraise any project?
No. WACC suits projects with the same business risk and financing mix as the company. For a project with different risk, you should adjust the discount rate to reflect that risk.