FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · Applying Duration, Convexity, and DV01
A 5-year annual-pay bond with a 6% coupon and USD 1,000 face value is priced to yield 6%. If the market yield rises to 7%, which statement about the bond's price is correct?
The bond trades at a discount to par. Its 6% coupon is below the new 7% market yield, so discounting its fixed cash flows at the higher rate gives a present value below USD 1,000, reflecting the inverse price-yield relationship.
- AIt trades at a discount to par because the coupon is now below the market yieldCorrect
- BIt trades at a premium to par because the coupon exceeds the original yield
- CIt remains at par because the coupon rate is unchanged
- DIt trades at par plus accrued coupon interest
Explanation
A bond's price falls when its yield rises. With the coupon of 6% below the new yield of 7%, the bond's cash flows are discounted at a higher rate than the coupon, so the price is below par (about USD 959.00). The premium option reverses the price-yield relationship.
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