Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Credit Risk Management

A bank has two OTC derivative trades with the same counterparty under a legally enforceable netting agreement: Trade A has a mark-to-market value of +USD 12 million and Trade B has -USD 7 million to the bank. No collateral is held. If the counterparty defaults, what is the bank's exposure and what would it be without netting?

Exposure is USD 5 million with netting, since the positive USD 12 million is offset by the negative USD 7 million. Without netting, exposure is USD 12 million, the sum of the positive-value trades only, because negative-value trades cannot reduce the claim on the defaulter.

  1. AUSD 5 million with netting; USD 12 million without nettingCorrect
  2. BUSD 12 million with netting; USD 5 million without netting
  3. CUSD 5 million with netting; USD 19 million without netting
  4. DUSD 7 million with netting; USD 12 million without netting

Explanation

With netting, the exposure is max(12 - 7, 0) = USD 5 million. Without netting, the bank must pay the USD 7 million owed on Trade B in full yet recovers only a fraction of Trade A, so the exposure is the sum of positive values, USD 12 million. Adding absolute values (19) is incorrect.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Credit Risk Management shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Credit Risk Management questions