FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Liquidity Risk Management
A bank has USD 400 million of unencumbered Level 1 government bonds, currently valued at market. In a repo stress scenario, lenders raise the haircut on these bonds from 2% to 8%. Ignoring other changes, by how much does the cash the bank can raise by repoing the entire holding fall?
Borrowing capacity falls by USD 24 million. At a 2% haircut the bank raises 392 million; at 8% it raises 368 million. The difference is 6% of the USD 400 million collateral, so the increase in haircut reduces cash by 24 million.
- AUSD 24 millionCorrect
- BUSD 32 million
- CUSD 6 million
- DUSD 368 million
Explanation
Cash at 2% haircut = 400 x 0.98 = 392. Cash at 8% haircut = 400 x 0.92 = 368. The fall is 392 - 368 = USD 24 million (6% of 400). USD 368 million is the post-stress cash, not the reduction.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Liquidity Risk Management shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Liquidity Risk Management questions
- Which action best reduces a bank's funding concentration risk as part of its liquidity risk management?
- During a crisis, a bank's CFP assumes it can sell a large block of asset-backed securities at near-market prices within a week to cover a fu…
- A fund must sell a large block of stock and is choosing between selling immediately and spreading sales over several days. Which statement b…
- A mid-sized bank's treasury team is drafting its contingency funding plan (CFP). Which of the following features is most consistent with sou…
- A dealer finances $100 million of securities through overnight repo with a 2% haircut and funds the haircut with its own capital. In a stres…
- A fund holds USD 10 million of a stock with daily return volatility of 2%. It can liquidate only 25% of the position per day without excessi…