Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Capital Regulation Before the Global Financial Crisis

A bank wishes to use the Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA) for operational risk under Basel II. Which of the following best describes a supervisory soundness standard for the AMA's risk measure?

The AMA risk measure must capture potentially severe tail events, comparable to a 99.9% confidence level over a one-year holding period. The other options describe the Basic Indicator Approach, the Standardised Approach, or a much weaker standard that does not meet the requirement.

  1. AIt must capture potentially severe tail loss events at a 99.9% confidence level over a one-year horizonCorrect
  2. BIt must equal 15% of average gross income
  3. CIt must be based on the bank's expected loss only, at a 95% confidence level
  4. DIt must use fixed regulatory betas applied to eight business lines

Explanation

Basel II requires the AMA measure to be comparable to a 99.9% one-year soundness standard, capturing severe tail events. The 15% of gross income is the BIA and fixed betas are the Standardised Approach. Expected loss alone at 95% does not meet the standard.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Capital Regulation Before the Global Financial Crisis shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Capital Regulation Before the Global Financial Crisis questions