FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Risk Management for Changing Interest Rates: Asset-Liability Management and Duration Techniques
A bond has modified duration of 6.0 and convexity of 50. Yields rise by 100 bp. Using duration and convexity, the approximate percentage price change is closest to:
The approximate price change is -5.75%. Duration alone gives -6.00% (6.0 times 1%), and the convexity adjustment adds back +0.25% (0.5 times 50 times 0.0001). Convexity reduces the loss from a yield rise, so the duration-only estimate is too pessimistic.
- A-6.00%
- B-5.75%Correct
- C-5.50%
- D-6.25%
Explanation
Change = -D*dy + 0.5*C*dy^2 = -6.0*0.01 + 0.5*50*0.0001 = -0.06 + 0.0025 = -5.75%. Ignoring convexity gives -6.00%, which overstates the loss. Subtracting the convexity term gives -6.25%, a sign error.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Risk Management for Changing Interest Rates: Asset-Liability Management and Duration Techniques shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Risk Management for Changing Interest Rates: Asset-Liability Management and Duration Techniques questions
- A bank has assets of $500 million with duration 6.0 years and liabilities of $450 million with duration 5.0 years. Equity is $50 million. Wh…
- A bank manager immunizes a bond portfolio using modified duration alone. Which assumption about the yield curve underlies this approach and …
- A bank manager uses modified duration to estimate the price change of a long-dated bond portfolio after a very large, sudden rise in yields.…
- A bank holds assets with a market value of $800 million and a modified duration of 4.0 years. Its liabilities have a market value of $720 mi…
- A treasurer wants to immunize the net worth of a bank against small parallel shifts in interest rates. Which condition on the balance sheet …
- A pension fund must pay a single liability of 10 million in 5 years. It buys a portfolio of bonds with PV equal to the liability and a durat…