FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Portfolio Risk: Analytical Methods
A portfolio worth USD 200 million has a daily volatility of 1.0%. A position of USD 50 million in Asset X has a beta of 1.2 with respect to the portfolio. Using a 95% confidence level (z = 1.645) under normality, what is the component VaR of Asset X?
Component VaR is about USD 0.99 million. Portfolio VaR is 1.645 times 1% times 200 million, or 3.29 million. Multiplying by the asset's weight of 25% and its beta of 1.2 to the portfolio gives roughly 0.99 million.
- AUSD 0.99 millionCorrect
- BUSD 0.82 million
- CUSD 1.23 million
- DUSD 3.29 million
Explanation
Portfolio VaR = 1.645 x 1.0% x 200 = 3.29 million. Component VaR = position weight x beta x portfolio VaR = (50/200) x 1.2 x 3.29 = 0.987, about 0.99 million. Omitting beta gives 0.82; using 1.2 x 1.0... without the weight gives 3.29 x 1.2 = 3.95 which is wrong; 1.23 comes from using the wrong base.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Portfolio Risk: Analytical Methods shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Portfolio Risk: Analytical Methods questions
- At the optimal risk-return allocation across several positions, which condition on marginal VaR should hold?
- A fund's optimal portfolio satisfies the condition for risk-budget efficiency. Which condition describes it?
- An investor chooses between two uncorrelated risky funds to add to a portfolio. Fund A has an excess return of 4% and volatility of 8%. Fund…
- Which statement best describes why scenario-based stress testing is used alongside analytical VaR?
- A portfolio manager finds that a position has a negative marginal VaR. What does this imply?
- A risk manager uses a delta-normal VaR model for a portfolio that contains a large short position in out-of-the-money equity put options. Wh…