Skip to content

FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · The Arbitrage Pricing Theory and Multifactor Models of Risk and Return

An analyst estimates factor betas for a fund by regressing its excess returns on the excess returns of the market, a value factor and a momentum factor. The estimated coefficient on the momentum factor is 0.30 with a standard error of 0.10. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

The coefficient means that, holding the other factors constant, a 1% rise in the momentum factor return is associated with a 0.30% rise in the fund's excess return. The t-statistic of 3 (0.30 divided by 0.10) indicates statistical significance.

  1. AHolding the other factors constant, a 1% rise in the momentum factor return is associated with a 0.30% rise in the fund's excess return, and the t-statistic of 3 suggests the loading is statistically significantCorrect
  2. BA 1% rise in the momentum factor return raises the fund's total return by 30%, and the t-statistic of 3 is not significant
  3. CThe fund holds 30% of its assets in momentum stocks and the t-statistic of 3 indicates the beta is zero
  4. DThe coefficient is the fund's alpha, and a t-statistic of 3 means alpha is insignificant

Explanation

A multifactor beta is the partial sensitivity of the fund's return to a factor, holding other factors fixed. A t-statistic of 0.30/0.10 = 3 exceeds conventional critical values, so the loading is significant. It is not a portfolio weight nor the alpha (the intercept).

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on The Arbitrage Pricing Theory and Multifactor Models of Risk and Return shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More The Arbitrage Pricing Theory and Multifactor Models of Risk and Return questions