Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Portfolio Risk: Analytical Methods

An investor has two uncorrelated assets with expected excess returns of 4% and 6% and volatilities of 10% and 20%. Under mean-variance optimization with uncorrelated assets, the optimal weights are proportional to expected excess return divided by variance. What is the ratio of the optimal weight in Asset 2 to the weight in Asset 1?

The ratio is 0.375. With uncorrelated assets, optimal weights are proportional to excess return over variance: 4 for Asset 1 and 1.5 for Asset 2, so Asset 2's weight is 0.375 times Asset 1's.

  1. A0.375Correct
  2. B1.5
  3. C0.60
  4. D2.67

Explanation

Weight is proportional to mu/sigma^2. Asset 1: 0.04/0.01 = 4. Asset 2: 0.06/0.04 = 1.5. Ratio = 1.5/4 = 0.375. Using 1.5 ignores the variance of Asset 1; 0.60 divides returns by volatility rather than variance.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Portfolio Risk: Analytical Methods shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Portfolio Risk: Analytical Methods questions