Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Credit Value at Risk

Two obligors each have a one-year PD of 5%. The joint default probability is 0.0075. What is the default correlation?

Default correlation equals joint default probability minus the product of the individual PDs, divided by the geometric mean of the Bernoulli variances. That gives (0.0075 - 0.0025)/0.0475, which is about 0.1053.

  1. A0.0500
  2. B0.1053Correct
  3. C0.0250
  4. D0.1500

Explanation

Correlation = (P12 - p1p2)/sqrt(p1(1-p1)p2(1-p2)). Numerator = 0.0075 - 0.0025 = 0.0050. Denominator = 0.05 x 0.95 = 0.0475. Result = 0.1053. Option 0.15 wrongly uses joint probability over PD without the product adjustment.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Credit Value at Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Credit Value at Risk questions