Skip to content

CMA Final · Strategic Financial Management · Portfolio Theory and Practice

Two securities have standard deviations of 8% and 12%, and their correlation is -1. What proportion invested in the 8% security gives a zero-risk portfolio?

The proportion to put in the 8% security is 60%. With perfect negative correlation, the weight in the first security is the second security's standard deviation divided by the sum of both, 12/20 = 0.6. Then 0.6 x 8 equals 0.4 x 12, so the risk cancels out.

  1. A40%
  2. B50%
  3. C60%Correct
  4. D66.7%

Explanation

With correlation of -1, the zero-variance weight in the first security is w1 = s2/(s1+s2) = 12/(8+12) = 0.60. Check: 0.6 x 8 = 4.8 and 0.4 x 12 = 4.8, so the risks offset exactly. The 40% option reverses the weights.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Portfolio Theory and Practice shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Portfolio Theory and Practice questions