ACCA Strategic Professional · Advanced Financial Management · Discounted cash flow techniques
Which statement about using CAPM-based project discount rates is correct?
Ungearing a proxy's equity beta removes financial risk and leaves the asset beta, which reflects only business risk. This can then be regeared to the financing structure of the project being appraised.
- AThe asset beta reflects both business risk and financial risk
- BThe equity beta of a geared firm is lower than its asset beta when debt is positive
- CUngearing a proxy's equity beta removes the effect of financial risk to leave business riskCorrect
- DRegearing the asset beta should use the proxy's gearing ratio rather than the project's financing
Explanation
Asset beta measures business risk alone because the effect of gearing has been removed. With positive debt the equity beta is higher than the asset beta, not lower. Regearing should use the investing firm's project financing, not the proxy's.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Discounted cash flow techniques shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Discounted cash flow techniques questions
- A firm has an equity beta of 1.20 when geared with debt-to-equity of 1:3 by market value. Debt beta is zero and tax is 25%. Using the Modigl…
- A company faces capital constraints at time 0 and again at time 1, and its projects are divisible. Why is ranking projects by a single profi…
- Zeta plc has a single-period capital constraint of $500,000 available now. Projects are divisible and cannot be repeated. Project A: investm…
- Which of the following is an example of hard capital rationing?
- Harbin plc has $100,000 available at time 0 only. The projects below are indivisible and cannot be repeated. X: outlay $60,000, NPV $14,000.…
- Which statement about hard and soft capital rationing is correct?