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FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Liquidity Risk

Which statement best describes the main limitation of the constant-spread and exogenous-spread approaches to liquidity-adjusted VaR when applied to a very large position in a thinly traded bond?

The main limitation is that these methods treat the spread as exogenous and independent of trade size. They therefore ignore the endogenous price impact of a large sale in a thin market, which understates the true liquidation cost of a big position.

  1. AThey ignore the bid-ask spread entirely and only consider price volatility
  2. BThey treat the spread as independent of trade size, so they omit the price impact of the bank's own sellingCorrect
  3. CThey overstate liquidity risk because spreads tend to narrow in stressed markets
  4. DThey can only be applied to positions that are liquidated over more than ten days

Explanation

Exogenous-spread approaches treat the spread as given by the market, so liquidation size does not affect it. Large positions in thin markets move prices (endogenous liquidity), which these models miss. Spreads normally widen, not narrow, in stress.

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