Skip to content

ACCA Strategic Professional · Advanced Financial Management · Application of option pricing theory in investment decisions

Arden Ltd shares trade at $100. A one-year European call (exercise $100) is valued at $12 and a one-year European put (exercise $100) at $7. The one-year risk-free rate, annually compounded, is r. Ignoring dividends, what is r implied by put-call parity?

Put-call parity gives call minus put equals share price minus the present value of the exercise price. So 5 equals 100 minus 100/(1+r), meaning 100/(1+r) is 95 and 1+r is 1.0526. The implied risk-free rate is about 5.3%.

  1. A4.0%
  2. B5.3%Correct
  3. C6.0%
  4. D7.1%

Explanation

Parity: C - P = S - X/(1+r). So 12 - 7 = 5 = 100 - 100/(1+r), giving 100/(1+r) = 95 and 1+r = 1.05263, so r = 5.26%, about 5.3%. Using 5/100 directly as r gives 5.0%, and using 100-95 over 100 as a rate would miss discounting the base.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Application of option pricing theory in investment decisions shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Application of option pricing theory in investment decisions questions