Skip to content

CS Professional · Labour Laws and Practice · Constitution and Labour Laws

Kaveri Auto Components employs workers in a Union Territory and in Maharashtra. Its HR head asks which government is the 'appropriate government' concept relevant for, and why the Codes use it. Which is the best statement of the purpose of the 'appropriate government' definition under the Labour Codes?

The 'appropriate government' definition identifies whether the Central or the State Government has authority to make rules, issue notifications and enforce the Code for a particular establishment, for example Central for railways and mines, State for most other factories. It is not about wages, courts or union appointments.

  1. AIt fixes which government (Central or State) has authority to make rules, notify and enforce the Code for a given establishmentCorrect
  2. BIt decides which court hears all labour disputes
  3. CIt sets the minimum wage payable to every worker nationwide
  4. DIt appoints the trade union representatives in an establishment

Explanation

The Codes define 'appropriate government' to identify whether the Central Government or the State Government exercises rule-making, notification and enforcement powers, depending on the nature of the establishment, such as railways, mines or ordinary factories. It does not fix wages or appoint union leaders, nor does it allocate court jurisdiction.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Constitution and Labour Laws shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

Practise Constitution and Labour LawsFree diagnostic mock

More Constitution and Labour Laws questions