FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Introduction to Credit Risk Modeling and Assessment
A validation team evaluates a scorecard using the ROC curve. Model A has an AUC of 0.82 and a Gini (accuracy ratio) coefficient the team must report. Model B has a Gini of 0.70. Assuming Gini = 2*AUC - 1, which statement is correct?
Model A's Gini is 2×0.82 − 1 = 0.64, while Model B's Gini of 0.70 implies an AUC of 0.85. Model B therefore discriminates better. Calibration does not affect this comparison, which depends only on ranking power.
- AModel A has Gini 0.64 and is less discriminating than Model B
- BModel A has Gini 0.82 and is more discriminating than Model B
- CModel A has Gini 0.64 and is less discriminating than Model B only if calibrated
- DModel A has Gini 0.64, and Model B has an AUC of 0.85, so Model B discriminates betterCorrect
Explanation
Model A: Gini = 2*0.82 - 1 = 0.64. Model B: AUC = (0.70+1)/2 = 0.85. Since 0.85 exceeds 0.82, Model B discriminates better. Reporting Gini equal to AUC is a conversion error, and calibration is irrelevant to ranking power.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Introduction to Credit Risk Modeling and Assessment shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Introduction to Credit Risk Modeling and Assessment questions
- A bank builds a retail scorecard using logistic regression, where the dependent variable equals 1 if the borrower defaults within 12 months …
- A portfolio has expected loss of $12 million. Its 99.9% one-year credit VaR, measured as the 99.9th percentile of the loss distribution, is …
- A lender uses a discriminant-type score, the Altman Z-score, to screen a manufacturing borrower. Which feature of such a model is most impor…
- A bank grants Delta Retail a revolving credit line with a limit of EUR 10 million, of which EUR 4 million is currently drawn. The bank estim…
- A bank has a single loan with exposure at default of $10 million, a one-year probability of default of 2%, and loss given default of 40%. Tr…
- A bank lends USD 2,000,000 to a corporate borrower. The one-year probability of default is 2%, the loss given default is 45%, and the exposu…